On page 259 of OPAR Peikoff defines integrity as “loyality in action to one’s convictions and values”. But the heading above is “Integrity as Loyalty to Rational Principles” and on page 261 he states “Integrity means loyalty not to a whim or delusion, but to one’s knowledge, to the conclusions one can prove logically.” Objectivism rightly regards the concept of God as irrational. Does this mean it would consider Thomas Aquinas as lacking integrity since he was loyal to something which could not be proven logically? Similarly Jean Valjean from “Les Miserables” – someone whose actions were based on an irrational faith in God? I have thought of both as having integrity but irrational.Am I wrong?