How Is Fraud An “Indirect” Use of Force?

[Steve Chipman]

At the bottom of page 319 of OPAR Peikoff notes that, when speaking of the vice of initiating physical force against another, “physical” does not necessarily mean violent. Agreed. He also notes that it does not have to be “direct” and cites fraud as an example of an indirect use of force. I can understand how a threat to use force would be “indirect” but do not understand how fraud is indirect force. Would he also say other “white collar crimes” such as libel, identity theft and embezzlement are examples of “indirect force”?

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